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thackaray
10-27-2005, 04:47 AM
Is it possible to give therapy to a client who does not know your native language?

I'll explain my question. Where I live there is a large minority of Asians which speak Punjab, Urdu, etc. I don't know these languages at all. I am willing to learn them.

I know that you can put anyone into a trance based on the rythm and tone of your voice and you could say anything e.g. reading a financial newspaper to do this. We were told on my Hypnosis course that on a previous course, there was a Spanish student who spoke OK English, but when practising inductions on other students, she got them into trance when she spoke in Spanish and used a fairytale.

I accept this would work, but would she have been able to give a client therapy if she spoke in Spanish and the client didn't know any Spanish? My teachers said that it could possible as the mind can translate and get the meaning of the words that she would use. This is because the mind interprets worlds and translates the meaning into an internal meaning for the client.

What are peoples views on this subject?

thackaray
10-27-2005, 04:58 AM
I know that you can put anyone into a trance based on the rythm and tone of your voice and you could say anything e.g. reading a financial newspaper to do this.

I accept that reading any financial newspaper would put anyone to sleep :D

I thought I'd get that in before Merlin :p

teadaze
10-27-2005, 08:26 AM
>My teachers said that it could possible as the mind can translate and get the meaning of the words that she would use. This is because the mind interprets worlds and translates the meaning into an internal meaning for the client.

Seems a bit far fetched to me....could be wrong though - the mind is very powerful

Terry (existing)
10-27-2005, 09:13 AM
Is it possible to give therapy to a client who does not know your native language?


I know that you can put anyone into a trance based on the rythm and tone of your voice and you could say anything e.g. reading a financial newspaper to do this. We were told on my Hypnosis course that on a previous course, there was a Spanish student who spoke OK English, but when practising inductions on other students, she got them into trance when she spoke in Spanish and used a fairytale.

I accept this would work, but would she have been able to give a client therapy if she spoke in Spanish and the client didn't know any Spanish? My teachers said that it could possible as the mind can translate and get the meaning of the words that she would use. This is because the mind interprets worlds and translates the meaning into an internal meaning for the client.

What are peoples views on this subject? As you your first question, yes you can induct someone using an unknown language, or appear to do so. It's all a matter of how good the pre induction talk is, so that they know what to expect. You can put someone into a trance like state by using music, but it isn't hypnosis, just so we keep things straight, it is just trance.... The students in the case you offer, were training, and knew or thought they knew what to expect, so entered trance in a normal manner. As to therapy, think about it. Language is a learned skill, learned skills don't suddenly appear from nowere, so the entranced person wouldn't understand what the hell you were saying, and get no benifit from it unless a pretalk had spelled it out ahead of time. There are lots of old wives tales floating about, and it seems your teachers have swallowed one, but that does NOT make it true. You can judge for yourself by using common sense, as I did when confronted by that same tale many years ago.....

thackaray
10-27-2005, 10:29 AM
thanks for those who replied so far. i just wanted to get a wider range of opinions from others around the world.

Ta,

Rob

Poodle
10-27-2005, 11:43 AM
Totally agree with Terry!!

Simple Guy
11-23-2005, 06:29 PM
I just thought about Thackaray's thread, having come across an account
that takes the matter raised by Thackaray "one further." It is reported
that Dr. Erickson, in South America, worked with a women without any
language usage between them. I'm inferring that the women and
Dr. Erickson were not able to understand each other. (Just an
inference, as Dr. Erickson was quite knowledgeable in many things.)
In any case, it is said that he brought about trance and some therapy
without use of any verbal exchange. This may be in The Collected
Papers of Milton Erickson. It is reported that there were credible witnesses
present. I've no further information other than that this is known
as the "Pantomime Induction." Holy moly...from polio to outdoing
Marcel Marceau (if true). :)

thackaray
11-24-2005, 01:42 AM
I've no further information other than that this is known
as the "Pantomime Induction." Holy moly...from polio to outdoing
Marcel Marceau (if true). :)

Oh the street Mime Artists of Paris, they're visualising and guided imagery skills are legendary ..... :rolleyes: :D

Dr Jimmy (not Dolittle)
11-26-2005, 07:44 AM
Any one ever Hypnotize a dog or cat?

I am an animal Chyropractic Therapist and frequently am requested to work on many circus animals and even some dogs that are restless and sometimes very dangerous and violent. I find hypnotising them to a peaceful state of relaxation allows me to realign their posture without and risk to me or the animal.

The point is, I am not Dr Dolittle. I don't speak any of their languages.

It works trust the process not your feelings.

Dr Jimmy (not Dolittle)

Terry (existing)
11-26-2005, 10:56 AM
On due consideration of the question as put, I confess I fell into the trap of misreading or misunderstanding the post. I was of course reffering to using verbal cues, and I should have know better, since working with the deaf bring a similar problem. Yes an expert can work with someone who has no concept of the language used, provided that there is no requirement for the use of language in order to succeed with the intended therapy.....

Hilde
11-26-2005, 03:27 PM
I have a question in regards to language. My parents and I moved from Germany to Calgary (maybe I was your neighbor Terry:) ) when I was one, and on to the States 5 years later. German was my first language as neither of my parents spoke English until the move. We all learned English together when I was a toddler, I do not consciously remember how to speak German now.

It is my understanding that once our subconscious learns it does not forget. I am thinking that if I were to regress back to my toddler days, I could once again speak German. I am wondering though, if my parents were to regress to a date prior to the move, would they still have the ability to speak English? In other words, when we regress, do we retain all information learned to date and have access to it in the regressed state?

My parents do not care to be hypnotized to discover this for ourselves, but I am just curious.

Hilde

Terry (existing)
11-27-2005, 09:16 AM
I would suggest that you are asking two questions here, not one. Could you recall your native langauge under hypnosis, to which the reply is "yes", and would regression make any difference, to which I must reply that I have never tried it, and have no idea, but at a guess, your parents would forget their English if regressed beyond the time they learned it, but if asked a question in either language, would reply and show they understood both languages, but were unwilling to speak one during a time when they didn't know it. Just a guess mind you, and not based on any experience....

Hilde
11-28-2005, 08:04 PM
Thanks Terry :)

One of these days I might have the opportunity to venture back to my youth:D I'll see if I still speak english at 3.

Hilde